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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 23.06.2025 00:30

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

You'll usually find your answer there.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

What is your biggest mistake or regret?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Who will benefit most from DeepSeek, the Chinese AI startup that is laying waste to US stocks? Who will be hurt the most?

There's no rule.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

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While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.